There was a question recently about this verse and what Jesus actually meant here. So, I thought I'd post this question to see what you guys thought.
In Matthew 26, Jesus is before the Sanhedrin. And he responds to questioning:
Matthew 26:63b-64a (NASB)
And the high priest said to Him, “I adjure You by the living God, that You tell us whether You are the Christ, the Son of God.” Jesus said to him, “You have said it yourself."
Is this phrase here Jesus agreeing with the high priest? What does Jesus mean here when he says "You have said it yourself"?
What he's saying here can easily be understood as "What you have said is true."
We can see this more clearly when we look at a parallel accounting of the event found in Mark:
Mark 14:61b-62a (NASB)
Again the high priest was questioning Him, and saying to Him, “Are You the Christ, the Son of the Blessed One?” And Jesus said, “I am."
So, in Mark he says "I am" and in Matthew he says "You have said it so." Because of the parallel answer in Matthew, that can be understood as "What you have said is true."Tweet